UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz: January 18-24, 2026 MCQs for Prelims Preparation
UPSC Weekly Quiz Jan 18-24, 2026: Key MCQs for Prelims

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz: January 18 to January 24, 2026

As the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 approaches, staying updated with current affairs becomes crucial for aspirants. This weekly quiz, curated for competitive exam preparation, features ten multiple-choice questions from the past week, complete with detailed explanations to enhance your understanding and consolidate your study efforts. Written by Nitendra Pal Singh in New Delhi on January 24, 2026, this resource aims to kickstart your early preparation and brush up on key topics.

Why These Questions Matter for UPSC Prelims 2026

The UPSC Prelims increasingly focuses on integrated, capability-driven approaches rather than rote memorization. Questions are designed to test your grasp of contemporary issues, policy implications, and analytical skills, reflecting trends in defence indigenization, digital governance, historical geography, agro-climatic suitability, international alliances, wildlife conservation, nutrition, data sovereignty, healthcare advancements, and energy policy. Engaging with such MCQs helps build a holistic perspective essential for success.

Question 1: C295 Aircraft

With reference to the C295 aircraft, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a versatile transport aircraft.
  2. The first ‘Made in India’ C295 aircraft will be manufactured under an industrial partnership with Russia.
  3. It is equipped for air-to-air refuelling of fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Explanation: The C295 aircraft is a key component of India's defence modernization. Statement 1 is correct, as it is a versatile aircraft used for tasks like troop transport and surveillance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the manufacturing deal is with Spain, not Russia, under a 2021 agreement to replace the IAF's AVRO 748 fleet. Statement 3 is correct, as it supports air-to-air refuelling. Thus, option (b) is the answer, highlighting UPSC's focus on defence indigenization and strategic capabilities.

Question 2: E-Passports

With reference to the e-passport, consider the following statements:

  1. They have an RFID (radio-frequency identification) chip.
  2. The e-passport has the details of biometric data, including fingerprints.
  3. All new passports issued since January 2026 are e-passports.
  4. There is no visible differentiator in an e-passport.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) All four

Explanation: E-passports represent a shift towards digital governance. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, as the RFID chip stores encrypted biometric data for faster verification. Statement 3 is incorrect because e-passports were introduced in May 2025, not January 2026. Statement 4 is incorrect due to a gold-coloured symbol on the cover. Option (b) is correct, emphasizing UPSC's interest in technology-enabled public services.

Question 3: North-Eastern Region Before Independence

With reference to the north-eastern region of India before Independence, consider the following statements:

  1. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Mizoram were a part of colonial Assam.
  2. Only Tripura was the princely state with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam.
  3. Sikkim had enjoyed juridical independence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 3 only
  • (d) 1 only

Explanation: This question tests historical geography. Statement 1 is correct, as these states were part of colonial Assam. Statement 2 is incorrect because Mizoram and Tripura were both princely states under British oversight. Statement 3 is correct, as Sikkim maintained juridical independence before annexation. Option (b) is the answer, reflecting UPSC's focus on political integration and frontier administration.

Question 4: Apple Production in India

With reference to the apple production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. In India, apples are harvested between July and November.
  2. Loamy soils, rich in organic matter with pH 5.5 to 6.5 are suitable for cultivation.
  3. They can be grown at altitudes 1,500-2,700 m. above mean sea level in the Himalayan range.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Explanation: Apple cultivation is vital for hill agriculture. All three statements are correct: harvesting occurs from July to November, suitable soils have specific pH levels, and growth is optimal at high altitudes in the Himalayas. Option (c) is correct, underscoring UPSC's emphasis on agro-climatic factors and horticulture.

Question 5: Non-European Members of NATO

Which of the following countries are the non-European members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?

  1. Canada
  2. Australia
  3. United States
  4. Colombia
  5. Japan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • (a) 2, 3 and 4
  • (b) 1, 3 and 5
  • (c) 3 and 5 only
  • (d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: NATO's membership includes only two non-European countries: the United States and Canada. Australia, Colombia, and Japan are not members. Thus, option (d) is correct, highlighting UPSC's interest in international alliances and global security dynamics.

Question 6: Gangetic Dolphins

With reference to the Gangetic dolphins, consider the following statements:

  1. It is India’s national aquatic animal.
  2. It has been classified as “vulnerable” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  3. It is known as the ‘pink river dolphin or boto’.
  4. The Gangetic dolphins are only found in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) All four

Explanation: Gangetic dolphins are key to river ecosystem conservation. Statement 1 is correct as they are India's national aquatic animal. Statement 2 is incorrect because they are classified as “endangered,” not “vulnerable.” Statement 3 is incorrect, as the pink river dolphin refers to a different species in the Amazon. Statement 4 is incorrect due to their presence in multiple countries. Option (a) is correct, linking to biodiversity policies like Namami Gange.

Question 7: Vitamin B12

With reference to Vitamin B12, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a fat-soluble vitamin.
  2. It depends heavily on other nutrients in food for absorption.
  3. These are widely used for deficiency-related concerns.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None

Explanation: Vitamin B12 is crucial for public health. Statement 1 is incorrect because it is water-soluble, not fat-soluble. Statement 2 is incorrect as absorption does not heavily depend on other nutrients. Statement 3 is correct due to its use in addressing deficiencies. Option (a) is correct, emphasizing nutrition and health schemes.

Question 8: India's First Data Embassy

India is working on the establishment of its first “data embassy” in the:

  • (a) Norway
  • (b) Sweden
  • (c) Qatar
  • (d) U.A.E

Explanation: A data embassy enhances digital sovereignty by storing critical data offshore. India plans to establish its first data embassy in the U.A.E., as announced during bilateral talks, ensuring data continuity against cyber threats. Option (d) is correct, reflecting UPSC's focus on cybersecurity and international tech partnerships.

Question 9: Drug Nivolumab

The drug, Nivolumab, is effective against:

  • (a) Tuberculosis
  • (b) Hepatitis B
  • (c) Cancers
  • (d) Dengue

Explanation: Nivolumab is a monoclonal antibody used in immunotherapy to treat various cancers by boosting the immune response. Option (c) is correct, highlighting advancements in biotechnology and healthcare.

Question 10: India's Energy Policy

Consider the following statements:

  1. India continues to rely heavily on thermal power, with coal dominating not just grid-based electricity.
  2. The draft policy 2026 pushes for the direct use of nuclear power by commercial and industrial consumers.
  3. India’s nuclear capacity target for 2047 is 1000 GWe.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: India's energy strategy involves a shift towards nuclear power. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, noting coal dependence and policy support for nuclear adoption. Statement 3 is incorrect because the target is 100 GWe, not 1000 GWe. Option (b) is correct, aligning with climate commitments and energy security.

Regularly attempting such quizzes can significantly enhance your current affairs knowledge and analytical skills for the UPSC Prelims 2026. Focus on understanding the underlying concepts and their broader implications to excel in the examination.